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GrahamCracker -> RE: Do you believe that we have to be baptized in order to go to heaven? (12/11/2008 11:37:59 AM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: greatdivide46 All of what you say is true except the part about me making stuff up. And no, the baptism of John didn't count as far as admitting people into the church and them receiving the Holy Spirit. That's why the men that Paul ran into in Ephesus who knew only the baptism of John had to be baptized with Christian baptism. Look. I'll retract my point about you making stuff up. But you are so entrenched in your position that you are following a herd mentality in support of those in the CoC camp, et al. For all intents and purposes you are stating things that are not consistent with the biblical record. 1) You still didn't answer the point about Jesus' disciples. Their baptism was from John the Baptist also. That is, they were baptized by John. If John's baptism didn't count, you have not explained why Jesus' disciples were not rebaptized. 2) The Ephesian disciples of Acts were not rebaptized because it was John the Baptist's baptism. They were rebaptized because their knowledge of its purpose was incomplete. They were baptized "unto John's baptism" (19:3). Paul said John was "telling them to believe in the one who was to come after, namely Jesus..." (19:4). THAT, the Ephesian disciples either didn't hear or someone didn't tell them. The essential core of the Gospel (The Christ is coming, receive Him)----OR--- Christ has already come, receive Him---that is something those Ephesian disciples had missed altogether. So let's dispense with the absurd notion that John's baptism didn't count. A significant number of the early church probably had John's baptism but no other subsequent baptism that we are told about. quote:
Agree with your assessment of the situation, however, I think there's more to baptism than merely a sign to the Jews about the coming destruction. Ok, agreed. But to make this a universal statement of the gospel is also untrue. quote:
If what you say is true, then why did the Apostles continue the practice even to the Gentiles? And if the purpose of baptism was as you state, then what is it's purpose today and when did the purpose change? Why did they do what, baptize to the remission of sins---or just baptize? There are a number of reasons to baptize. It doesn't necessitate baptism for the purpose of salvation, just because one baptizes. Let's clarify what the disciples preached and practiced. They continued to baptize, both Jews and Gentiles. Baptism--for the remission of sins was not preached nor practiced subsequent to Acts 2:38, unless it was practiced and practiced to Jews. quote:
Since I don't believe in baptismal regeneration the answer to your question is no. You may object to the use of the term. But like it or not, the position you espouse is called baptismal regeneration.
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